лексико-грамматический тест по модулям 1-9 к учебнику "Spotlight-6"
тест по английскому языку (6 класс) на тему
лексико-грамматический тест по модулям 1-9 к учебнику "Spotlight-6" в 2-х вариантах
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Предварительный просмотр:
TEST A
NAME: ………………………………………………. DATE….…………………… CLASS: ……………………………………………… MARK: _________________ 60 (Time: 45 minutes) |
A Choose the correct item:
1. Matt usually … his homework after school. A doing B does C do 2. Look! Jenny … the flowers. A waters B is watering C water 3. Tom ….his friends on Sundays. A is meeting B meets C will meet 4. In 2100, people … flying cars. A are driving B will drive C drive 5. How … milk is there in the bottle? A much B many C any 6. Tom and Nick … my friends. A aren’t B isn’t C haven’t 7. Have …. a bicycle? A she got B got we C you got 8. My parents …. work in a hospital. A don’t B doesn’t C aren’t 9. What are you …. now? A doing B does C do 10. How ….. rice can you eat? A many B some C much 11. You are on holiday. You …. wake up early. A have to B needn’t C mustn’t 12. Look at them! They ….in the garden. A are playing B plays C playing 13. What are the …. of the game? A laws B rules C guides 14. We have to pay the …. for the flat. A note B hire C rent 29. Many people live in …. of flats A blocks B hotels C halls 30. We were afraid of swimming in the …. river. A polluted B deserted C clean 31. Chess and backgammon are both … games. A table B bored C board 32. Are you interested … art and drama? A at B in C by 33. Robert is very keen … windsurfing. A in B at C on 34. “Can I take pictures here? – Sorry, you … A have B can’t C can 35. Let’s watch the firework …. A show B programme C display 36. Every morning I have … bowl of cereal. A some B a C many 37. My uncle is a traffic ….. A man B guard C warden 38. There are separate … for bikes, cars and buses. A lines B lanes C roads 39. Last weekend we … to the Crazy Ride Adventure Park. A go B will go C went 40. Aunt Betsy is ….. tea for everyone. A doing B making C drinking | 15. We haven’t got … milk in the fridge. A some B any C many 16. How often … they do the shopping? A are B does C do 17. A lion is …..than an elephant. A smaller B smallest C small 18. You … swim here. The beach is closed. A must B can C can’t 19. Which is the ….car. A cheap B cheapest C cheaper 20. Is this the lost …. office? A things B property C objects 21. Be quite! You …. make noise. A must B can C mustn’t 22. You … wear a seatbelt when you drive. A can B can’t C must 23. I’m not …. to go to the cinema tonight. A will B would C going 24. We keep our car in the …... A station B dungeon C garage 25. Donald Duck is a famous …. character. A film B cartoon C movie 26. What did he …. to you? A saw B said C say 27. When did your parents call you? - They ... an hour ago. A called B will call C call 28. I …. these books yesterday. A buy B bought C did buy 41. We are playing pin the …. on the donkey. A tale B tail C apple 42. I am going to the … to buy stamps. A chemist’s B post office C greengrocer’s 43. The ESB is one of the largest office …. A places B spaces C cases 44. Don’t touch that! It’s … A yours B my C mine 45. When you cross the street, … both ways for traffic. A look B see C listen 45. When you are in the car, don’t lean out … the window. A of B to C down 46. What’s your father’s …..?- He’s a doctor. A full name B team C occupation 47. We can go now, the traffic … are green. A line B lights C lane 48. There’s a cinema … to the library. A opposite B next C behind 49. She doesn’t like travelling … plane. A on B by C at 50. Today’s 2nd July. It’s the … day of the month. A second B third C tenth (Marks: _______) 50
50x1=50
|
B Read the text and mark the sentences T (true), F (false), Doesn’t say:
The Highland Games
Many highland games take place all over Scotland every year. The most famous meeting is in Braemor, a small village in the Scottish Highlands. The games are always on the first Saturday in September. Many athletes travel to Scotland each year to take part in the games. They compete in events like the hammer throw, shot put, and the hill run. There is also music and dancing competition. Marching bands perform for the crowd. They wear traditional clothing and play the bagpipes. The most popular event of the day is the tug of war. Two teams hold onto a rope and try to pull the other team over the line. Tossing the caber is also popular. The athletes have to run holding a heavy tree trunk, the caber, upright. Then they stop and throw it towards the sky.
Tickets always sell out months before the games start. It’s a great day out for all the family.
51. Many highland games take place all over Scotland annually.
A True B False C Doesn’t say
52. The games are always in summer.
A True B False C Doesn’t say
53. Many athletes travel to Scotland annually to take part in the games.
A True B False C Doesn’t say
54. The marching bands wear funny hats.
A True B False C Doesn’t say
55. The caber is very heavy.
A True B False C Doesn’t say
56. Tickets are always available.
A True B False C Doesn’t say
57. Braemar is a small village in England.
A True B False C Doesn’t say
58. The marching bands usually play drums.
A True B False C Doesn’t say
59. Tossing the caber is the most popular event of the day.
A True B False C Doesn’t say
60. The caber is a special rope that athletes pull.
A True B False C Doesn’t say
(Marks: _______)
10
10x1=10
Пояснительная записка
к контрольной работе по английскому языку
для учащихся 6-х классов, 2016-2017 уч. год
Контрольная работа составлена в соответствии с действующей программой по английскому языку на основании федерального государственного образовательного стандарта общего образования и предназначена для проведения промежуточной аттестации по английскому языку в 6 классе. Задания итоговой контрольной работы составлены на базе учебного материала УМК Spotlight 6 Английский в фокусе 6 Ю.Е. Ваулиной, О.Е. Подоляко издательства Просвещение.
Цель: контроль уровня сформированности речевой и языковой компетенции учащихся.
Темы, включенные в задания и подлежащие итоговому контролю:
- Семья. Члены семьи.
- У меня дома. Дом, квартира, мебель.
- Мой микрорайон. Городские общественные места.
- Безопасность на дорогах.
- Распорядок дня.
- Свободное время.
- Праздники.
- Правила и инструкции. Типы жилищ.
- Еда и напитки.
- Глагол to be в настоящем простом и прошедшем простом временах (am, is, are, was, were).
- Настоящее простое время.
- Настоящее длительное время.
- Прошедшее простое время.
- Местоимения личные, притяжательные.
- Местоимения some, any, much, many, a lot of.
- Количественные и порядковые числительные.
- Множественное число существительных, в т.ч. исключения.
- Структура there is/there are.
- Модальные глаголы can, must, need, have to
- Предлоги места и времени.
Тестовая работа состоит из 60 вопросов.
На выполнение аттестационной контрольной работы отводится 45 минут.
Система оценивания.
За каждый правильный ответ учащийся получает 1 балл. За неверный ответ или отсутствие ответа ставится 0 баллов.
Критерии оценивания: количество правильных ответов
86-100% - отметка «5»
66-85% - отметка «4»
40-65% - отметка «3»
0-39% - отметка «2»
Предварительный просмотр:
TEST B
NAME: ………………………………………………. DATE….…………………… CLASS: ……………………………………………… MARK: _________________ 60 (Time: 45 minutes) |
A Choose the correct item:
1. Sandra … to school every day. A going B goes C go 2. Steve … now. A waters B sleep C is sleeping 3. Tom … his friends on Sundays. A is meeting B meets C will meet 4.Kate … a party tonight. A is having B has C have 5. How … potatoes are there in the bag? A much B many C any 6. Sarah … my friend. A aren’t B isn’t C haven’t 7. Has …. a ticket? A she got B got we C you got 8. His mum …. work at school. A don’t B doesn’t C aren’t 9. She … her homework at 6 p.m. every day. A makes B does C stirs 10. How ….. water can you drink? A many B some C much 11. You … invite your friends to your bedroom. It’s prohibited. A have to B needn’t C mustn’t 12. Look! She … a book. A playing B reads C is reading 13. We have to pay the …. for the flat. A note B hire C rent 14. What are the …. of the game? A laws B rules C guides 29. Students usually stay at University … of residence. A blocks B hotels C halls 30. There are many people. That place is …. . A polluted B deserted C crowded 31. Darts and Cluedo are both … games. A interest B interesting C interested 32. Are you good … playing? A at B in C by 33. Bob is very keen … painting. A in B at C on 34. Can I open that door? – Sorry, you … A have B can’t C can 35. Let’s watch the firework …. A show B programme C display 36. Every morning I have … cup of tea. A some B a C many 37. ….. talk to the driver. A Do B Don’t C Doesn’t 38. There are separate … for bikes, cars and buses. A lines B lanes C roads 39. Last week we … to the Adventure Park. A go B went C will go 40. Lily’s brother is …..the dusting. A doing B making C drinking | 15. We haven’t got … olive oil in the fridge. A some B any C many 16. How often … you play tennis? A are B does C do 17. A cup is … than a table. A smaller B smallest C small 18. They … the dusting on Saturdays. A do B make C go 19. Where is the …. shop? A near B nearer C nearest 20. Is this the lost … office? A things B property C objects 21. Be quite! You …. make noise. A must B can C mustn’t 22. Students … take the rubbish out. The cleaners will do it. A have to B don’t have to C need to 23 In 2100 people … have flying cars. A will B was C going 24. We keep our car in the …... A station B dungeon C garage 25. Donald Duck is a famous …. character. A film B cartoon C movie 26. What did he …. to you? A saw B said C say 27. We keep our car in the …... A station B dungeon C garage 28. When did buy this car? - I ... a week ago. A buy B will buy C bought 41. We are playing pin the …. on the donkey. A tale B tail C apple 42. I am going to the … to buy vegetables. A chemist’s B post office C greengrocer’s 43. I think that English is the … at school A better B best C good 44.It’s Lily’s book! It’s … A hers B her C his 45. When you cross the street, … both ways for traffic. A look B see C listen 45. When you are in the car, don’t lean out … the window. A of B to C down 46. What’s your father’s …..?- He’s a doctor. A full name B team C occupation 47. We can’t go now, the traffic … are red. A line B lights C lane 48. There’s a cinema … to the library. A opposite B next C behind 49. She doesn’t like travelling … plane. A on B by C at 50. I …. these books yesterday. A buy B bought C did buy (Marks: _______) 50
50x1=50
|
B Read the text and mark the sentences T (true), F (false), Doesn’t say:
Building Big.
The Empire State Building is the tallest building in New York. It is 443 metres high and has 103 floors. It was built in 1930, and took one year and forty-five days to complete.
The Empire State Building is one of the largest office spaces in the world, but it also has many shops and restaurants inside.
The Empire State Building has 73 super fast lifts. The fastest of these travel from the ground to the 80th floor in only 45 seconds! If you choose to walk to the top, you need to climb 1860 steps.
At the Empire State Building most visitors go straight to the Observatory on the 86th floor. The view is amazing. On a clear day you can see for miles around. Looking at the Empire State Building from a distance is also great. The top floors are decorated with beautiful lights. These change colours every day. Depending on the occasion, the building can be white, green, blue, purple, red or orange!
If you are ever in New York, don't forget to visit the Empire State Building. It offers the best view of New York, and it is one of the city's most historic buildings.
51. The Empire State building is the tallest building in the world.
A True B False C Doesn’t say
52. The Empire State building was built in 1921.
A True B False C Doesn’t say
53. The Empire State building has 103 floors.
A True B False C Doesn’t say
54. You can buy melons at the Empire State building.
A True B False C Doesn’t say
55. Lots of people work inside the Empire State building.
A True B False C Doesn’t say
56. You can get to top of the Empire State building in only 45 seconds.
A True B False C Doesn’t say
57. The lights on the top floors change colours many times a day.
A True B False C Doesn’t say
58. The Observatory is on the 89th floor.
A True B False C Doesn’t say
59. The lights on the top of the building can be white, green, blue, purple, red or orange.
A True B False C Doesn’t say
60. The Empire State building has 73 lifts.
A True B False C Doesn’t say
(Marks: _______)
10
10x1=10
Пояснительная записка
к контрольной работе по английскому языку
для учащихся 6-х классов, 2016-2017 уч. год
Контрольная работа составлена в соответствии с действующей программой по английскому языку на основании федерального государственного образовательного стандарта общего образования и предназначена для проведения промежуточной аттестации по английскому языку в 6 классе. Задания итоговой контрольной работы составлены на базе учебного материала УМК Spotlight 6 Английский в фокусе 6 Ю.Е. Ваулиной, О.Е. Подоляко издательства Просвещение.
Цель: контроль уровня сформированности речевой и языковой компетенции учащихся.
Темы, включенные в задания и подлежащие итоговому контролю:
- Семья. Члены семьи.
- У меня дома. Дом, квартира, мебель.
- Мой микрорайон. Городские общественные места.
- Безопасность на дорогах.
- Распорядок дня.
- Свободное время.
- Праздники.
- Правила и инструкции. Типы жилищ.
- Еда и напитки.
- Глагол to be в настоящем простом и прошедшем простом временах (am, is, are, was, were).
- Настоящее простое время.
- Настоящее длительное время.
- Прошедшее простое время.
- Местоимения личные, притяжательные.
- Местоимения some, any, much, many, a lot of.
- Количественные и порядковые числительные.
- Множественное число существительных, в т.ч. исключения.
- Структура there is/there are.
- Модальные глаголы can, must, need, have to
- Предлоги места и времени.
Тестовая работа состоит из 60 вопросов.
На выполнение аттестационной контрольной работы отводится 45 минут.
Система оценивания.
За каждый правильный ответ учащийся получает 1 балл. За неверный ответ или отсутствие ответа ставится 0 баллов.
Критерии оценивания: количество правильных ответов
86-100% - отметка «5»
66-85% - отметка «4»
40-65% - отметка «3»
0-39% - отметка «2»
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